Osteopathic Manipulative Medicine (OMM) Principles and Practice of Osteopathic Medicine II (PPOM II) Practical 1 Practice Test

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• In MET AC joint Adduction SD, what does the patient attempt to move against resistance?
• In Tibia Internal Rotation SD MET, which hand placement is used?
• Thoracic Type II HVLA uses which pattern notation?
• AC1 Counterstrain can be performed with contact on which anatomical site?
• In PL 1-5 Counterstrain, what is the initial patient position?
• Regarding HVLA techniques for innominate dysfunctions, which statement is true about the setup described in these procedures?
• Which Cranial OMM technique is Direct Balanced Membranous Tension?
• Counterstrain AL2-4 uses which position?
• Which elbow/forearm position is used for medial epicondyle counterstrain?
• How many times should MET be performed before reassessment?
• Which Cranial OMM technique lifts the parietal bones?
• Which joint is described as the transverse tarsal joint?
• In MET for AC joint Rotation SD, how should the shoulder be positioned during setup?
• In BLT, a dysfunction at the L5-S1 level in the supine position is described as which of the following?
• Which diagnosis specifically targets the innominate bone as a unit?
• Quadratus Lumborum Counterstrain uses which muscle energy direction?
• MET for a Posteriorly Rotated Innominate Dysfunction-SUPINE: Where are the physician’s hands placed?
• Exhalation MET for ribs 9-10
• PL 1-5 Counterstrain are classified as which category?
• Which counterstrain target corresponds to tibiotalar dorsiflexion?
• HVLA Anterior Radial Head technique is performed with which combination of movements?
• Which counterstrain target is described as posteromedial on the greater trochanter?
• Which corresponds to Calcaneal \"Flexion Calcaneus\" Counterstrain?
• Which MET targets the posterior fibular head?
• Posterior Rib Counterstrain PR1 is performed with the rib state described as which?
• The subtalar joint primarily permits inversion and eversion of the foot. Which joint is this?
• For supine T4-12 Neutral Type I dysfunction, which supine example is listed?
• What is the counterstrain position for Rhomboid Minor/Major Counterstrain?
• Which Cranial OMM technique is Indirect Balanced Membranous Tension?
• Which counterstrain target is posterolateral trochanteric counterstrain?
• Which Cranial OMM technique addresses the zygomatic region with a lift?
• In Hip Adduction SD MET, which stabilization maneuver is described?
• Which joint is the primary articulation between the tibia/fibula and the talus at the ankle?
• Which technique is specifically listed as the answer for the occipitomastoid suture release entry in cranial OMM?
• Torsion Hand Placements are used to address cranial dysfunction characterized by which pattern?
• Posterior Rib Counterstrain PR2-10 is described as being performed with the rib in which state?
• Which diagnosis would be most appropriate for addressing dysfunction of the pelvis that could affect gait?
• Which position describes Counterstrain for inguinal tender point?
• In MET for Pubic Compression Dysfunction (Adducted Pubic Symphysis), which action does the patient perform?
• Posterior Cervical Counterstrain Points are classified as which category?
• Which sequence correctly describes the Thoracic Counterstrain technique AT10-12 as listed?
• Which MET targets the anterior fibular head?
• Lumbar Type II Flexion Dysfunction MET: Which step involves placing the top foot in the popliteal fossa while maintaining flexion of the top hip and knee?
• In Tibia External Rotation SD MET, which direction is the foot turned?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the first three stages of the Spencer Technique?
• What is the seventh stage of the Spencer Technique?
• Which counterstrain corresponds to Medial Ankle (Tibialis Anterior) Counterstrain?
• Which counterstrain target corresponds to the posteromedial trochanteric region?
• What is the counterstrain position for Biceps Brachii Long Head Counterstrain?
• Which counterstrain technique is associated with extension at the ankle and involves the gastrocnemius?
• Exhalation MET for rib pairs 1-2
• Which MET is used for inhalation MET of the mid-thoracic rib group?
• For Biceps Brachii Short Head / Coracobrachialis Counterstrain, where is the tender point located?
• Counterstrain AL1 uses which treatment position?
• In MET for Superior Pubic Shear Dysfunction, which describes the patient position at the start?
• Which MET is for exhalation of ribs 6-8?
• HVLA Rib 3-10 is used for which dysfunction type?
• Which Cranial OMM technique explicitly refers to rotation placements?
• Which diagnosis is most directly associated with the first rib and thoracic inlet?
• For the described foot technique, where is the thrust directed?
• Which counterstrain point is associated with pronator teres?
• In MET Left Unilateral Sacral Extension with Respiratory Assist, what is the patient's position?
• In the Alternative Bilateral Sacral Flexion MET, after the isometric contraction how should the barrier be engaged?
• MET for an Inflare of Innominate: Which action by the physician corresponds to the technique?
• What does the acronym BLU stand for in the MET Backwards Sacral Torsion approach?
• AC7 cervical counterstrain is classified as which category?
• In MET Left Unilateral Sacral Flexion with Respiratory Assist, what occurs during the patient's inhalation?
• What is the starting position for Knee Flexion SD MET?
• During Knee Flexion SD MET, what is the role of the stabilizing hand?
• For BLT assessment of the thoracic spine T4-12 with Neutral Type I dysfunctions in the supine position, which description matches?
• In MET for pronation dysfunction, which contact is made with the distal radius during the hand-grasp step?
• In Type I Thoracic MET, which anatomical structures are palpated to identify the apex of the Type I curve?
• Which MET is used for the atlantoaxial joint?
• Which SD MET target corresponds to talocalcaneal inversion?
• For Thoracic Type I HVLA, which description best matches the arm position during setup?
• What is the primary directional difference between anterior tibio-talar HVLA and posterior tibiotalar HVLA?
• The bone that forms the ankle mortise with the tibia and fibula is which?
• Which of the following statements about PR1 and PR2-10 Counterstrain is true?
• In Hip Abduction SD MET, which action does the patient perform?
• Counterstrain technique AT7-9 is indicated by which mnemonic and sequence?
• Which term refers to the bones located in the hindfoot and midfoot?
• MET for an Anteriorly Rotated Innominate Dysfunction-SUPINE: What is the patient’s leg position?
• Which action corresponds to the 6th stage in the Spencer Technique?
• In Tibia External Rotation SD MET, which hand placement is used to monitor motion?
• HVLA for the ulnohumeral joint described as adduction with lateral glide corresponds to which combination?
• Which counterstrain targets the Navicular bone?
• Which MET is for exhalation of ribs 1-2?
• The Becker Variation is a modification of which Cranial OMM technique?
• Which technique explicitly includes 'Bilateral Temporal Contact' in its name and references Becker?
• The Spencer Technique sequence is primarily applied to which region?
• Which of the following pattern names are associated with counterstrain patterns in the source material?
• MET for an Inferior Innominate Shear: What is the goal when engaging the hip with abduction and internal rotation?
• HVLA Rib 11-12 Exhaled is performed for which state?
• Which Cranial OMM technique elevates the frontal bone?
• In MET, hip extension SD typically involves which mechanism?
• During MET for supination dysfunction, what motion does the patient perform against the barrier?
• In MET for AC joint Rotation SD, what is the patient position?
• In MET, hip flexion SD typically involves which mechanism?
• Bilateral Sacral Extension MET: Respiratory Assist initially places the patient in which position?
• Counterstrain treatment for Iliacus requires which position?
• In Flexor Carpi Ulnaris Counterstrain, what is the wrist position?
• HVLA for Inferior Innominate Shear, what is the patient position?
• Which diagnosis would you choose to address dysfunction involving the innominate bone's relationship to the sacrum?
• The thoracic BLT for T1-2 described as a Non Neutral Type II is exemplified by which description?
• Innominate diagnosis evaluates dysfunction of which anatomical structure?
• In osteopathic diagnosis, AA diagnosis primarily evaluates dysfunction at which joint?
• Which HVLA targets the anterior aspect of the tibio-talar joint?
• Which HVLA is described as Posterior Fibular Head SD HVLA?
• In Counterstrain Psoas technique, what is the position of the hips and knees?
• In Thoracic Type I HVLA, which contact point is described as part of the setup?
• Which HVLA is described as Posterior Tibia SD HVLA?
• HVLA for Posterior Rotated Innominate Dysfunction, which most accurately describes the thrust direction?
• During Counterstrain AL2-4, the practitioner should stand on which side relative to the tender point?
• Superior Vertical Strain Hand Placements are used to address what kind of cranial strain?
• Which joint lies in the hindfoot region and forms the subtalar articulation?
• Which Spencer technique component involves circumduction with traction?
• HVLA Rib 3-10 is associated with which dysfunction type?
• Before performing Thoracic Type I or Type II HVLA, which step is performed first?
• Which MET is used for inhalation MET of ribs 11-12?
• Which Cranial OMM technique is a lift of the zygomatic region?
• In the seven stages of the Spencer Technique, what is the third stage?
• Lumbar diagnosis assesses dysfunction in which region?
• In Thoracic Type I HVLA, where is the physician positioned relative to the rotation diagnosis?
• Which joint forms the primary articulation between the leg and the talus, enabling ankle movement?
• In Abductor Pollicis Brevis Counterstrain, which positions are used for the wrist and thumb?
• Which diagnosis is used to assess dysfunction in the lower back region?
• For Supraspinatus Counterstrain, which combination of shoulder motions defines the tender-point position?
• Counterstrain technique AT1-6 requires which motion?
• Which diagnosis is most appropriate for addressing dysfunction at the pelvic girdle and its influence on leg mechanics?
• For the seated T4-12 Neutral Type I dysfunction example, which pattern is listed as the seated example?
• Sidebending Hand Placements address cranial patterns involving which motion?
• Lumbar Type I MET: What is the patient’s position relative to the side of rotation dysfunction?
• In Flexor Carpi Radialis Counterstrain, what is the wrist position?
• Which Cranial OMM technique includes 'Flexion' in its name?
• In the Lumbosacral BLT example, which pattern is given for L5?
• In PL 1-5 Counterstrain, which action completes Step 3?
• In MET for supination dysfunction, which aspect of the distal radius is contacted with the index finger?
• In MET Forward Sacral Torsion, which surface is monitored by the physician to assess sacral motion?
• Ribs 11-12 Inhalation MET?
• In Piriformis Counterstrain, which adjustment is used to fine-tune the tender point position?
• For the thoracic HVLA, when should the thrust be delivered during the breathing cycle?
• OA Decompression primarily targets which cranial joint?
• Which Cranial OMM technique uses hand placements for the sphenobasilar synchondrosis?
• Which Cranial OMM hold is performed unilaterally on the temporal bone?
• Which of the following is Navicular Counterstrain?
• Exhalation MET for ribs 6-8
• In MET Forward Sacral Torsion, what describes the swimmer position used for the patient?
• Which MET is for exhalation of ribs 3-5?
• Which joint connects the talus with the navicular bone?
• The distal attachment point for Extensor Carpi Radialis Counterstrain is at the distal attachment to which bone?
• In AT10-12 Thoracic Counterstrain, which movement rotates the torso away?
• Which counterstrain target corresponds to the lateral hamstring (biceps femoris)?
• During Thoracic Type I HVLA, which side bend direction is performed for the patient?
• In PL 1-5 Counterstrain, which description matches Step 2 leg position?
• In T1-T4 Thoracic Type II MET, where should you stand relative to the rotational component?
• For BLT assessment of the thoracic spine T4-12 with Neutral Type I dysfunctions in the seated position, which description matches?
• Which Spencer stage combines Circumduction with Slight Compression?
• Which MET targets ribs 2-6 during inhalation?
• Which joint connects the tarsal bones to the metatarsals?
• HVLA Rib 11-12 Inhaled is described as which state?
• The lumbar HVLA types mentioned are?
• Which of the following is not a cranial OMM hold?
• In Upper Pole L5 Counterstrain, where is the tender point located?
• What is the action labeled as 5b in the Spencer sequence?
• Counterstrain for Low Ilium calls for which primary motion?
• In cranial OMM, compression of the fourth ventricle is most commonly addressed with which BLT designation?
• In Thoracic Type I HVLA, the pattern is NSrRl. What do these letters represent?
• In Extensor Carpi Ulnaris Counterstrain, how is the wrist positioned?
• Which counterstrain technique is used for the popliteus region behind the knee?
• In BLT terminology, the entry labeled BLT of Fibula refers to which anatomical structure?
• Motion testing in this context is used to assess the mobility of which joint?
• Which Cranial OMM technique lifts the parietal bones?
• Which Cranial OMM technique addresses lateral strains of the cranial bones?
• In Pectoralis Minor Counterstrain, what is the arm position relative to the chest to place the tender point?
• Which of the following is a cranial or BLT diagnosis term mentioned in the material?
• Which term describes the bones comprising the hindfoot and midfoot?
• During Counterstrain AL5, the practitioner should stand on which side relative to the tender point?
• Which counterstrain target is described as posterolateral on the greater trochanter?
• Which Cranial OMM technique specifically involves adjusting rotation of the cranial bones?
• Ribs 3-6 and 7-10 diagnosis involves which rib groups?
• Which of the following is a Cranial OMM hold?
• In T1-T4 Thoracic Type II MET, which vertebrae are palpated together?
• In Hip External Rotation MET, which action creates external rotation?
• Which technique is used for the popliteus region?
• The first stage of the Spencer Technique is named which movement?
• In a traction-based HVLA of the foot, the patient is supine with the dorsum of the foot held; the foot is dorsiflexed and pulled toward you. What best describes the thrust?
• In Alternative Bilateral Sacral Flexion MET: Using Muscle Force, what is the initial patient position?
• Which Cranial OMM technique involves nasion spread for naso-frontal suture release?
• Where is the tender point located for Levator Scapulae Counterstrain?
• Which Cranial OMM technique is Frontal Lift Alternative Hand placement?
• Which Cranial OMM technique is named as Becker Hold?
• During MET for pronation dysfunction, what is the patient asked to do against the barrier?
• In Radioulnar Joint Diagnosis, which pair motions are used?
• Which Spencer technique corresponds to Internal Rotation?
• In cranial OMM terminology, what does OA diagnosis refer to?
• Which counterstrain technique is used for the medial meniscus of the knee?
• Which counterstrain target corresponds to the medial hamstring (semimembranosus)?
• In MET for AC joint Rotation SD, the shoulder is rotated to its barrier in which manner?
• Which counterstrain target involves the lateral trochanteric region?
• For Subscapularis Counterstrain, where is the tender point located?
• AC1 Counterstrain can also be performed using a contact on which structure?
• Which HVLA is described as Anterior Fibular Head SD HVLA?
• Which Cranial OMM technique involves Nasion Spread: Naso-frontal suture release?
• In the cervical spine BLT example, which vertebral level is given?
• During T1-T4 Thoracic Type II MET, how long and with what force should the patient rotate back to freedom?
• Which Spencer technique corresponds to Adduction/External Rotation?
• HVLA Posterior Radial Head technique is performed with which combination of movements?
• First rib diagnosis evaluates dysfunction in which anatomical structure?
• In lateral radial head counterstrain, the forearm is placed in which position?
• In the Spencer sequence, which action immediately follows Abduction (5a)?
• In MET for Inferior Pubic Shear Dysfunction, where is the fulcrum placed?
• In Type I Thoracic MET, which arm should the patient grasp with the same side as rotation?
• During Thoracic Type II HVLA, if a flexion dysfunction is present, which adjustment is described?
• In MET Bilateral Sacral Flexion with Respiratory Assist, which hand surfaces contact the sacral ILAs?
• Which Cranial OMM technique is Frontal Lift Alternative Hand placement?
• In MET Left Unilateral Sacral Flexion with Respiratory Assist, which action is used to find the loosest position for the left SI joint?
• For Biceps Brachii Long Head Counterstrain, where is the tender point located?
• Which Cranial OMM technique name explicitly includes 'Extension Hand Placements'?
• Inflare of Innominate: Which setup best describes the initial patient position?
• Counterstrain AL5 uses which position?
• In Hip Internal Rotation MET, the hip and knee should be flexed to what angle?
• Which HVLA targets the posterior aspect of the tibiotalar joint?
• In MET for Outflare of the innominate, which describes the patient's leg position?
• Which counterstrain targets the Lateral Ankle?
• What are the two components listed for the 5th stage (5a/5b) of the Spencer Technique?
• Which term denotes a cranial OMM diagnosis category focused on the thoracic region?
• In Pectoralis Minor Counterstrain, where is the tender point located?
• The ankle mortise is formed by the tibia, fibula, and which bone?
• Which Cranial OMM technique uses Inferior Vertical Strain Hand Placements?
• Rib Counterstrain AR3-10 is performed with the ribs in which phase?
• In MET Backwards Sacral Torsion, what is the chest position relative to the table?
• In T1-T4 Thoracic Type II MET, what is the initial head movement?
• Which counterstrain target is for the lateral meniscus?
• Which description correctly states patient and physician positioning for these cranial techniques?
• In Subscapularis Counterstrain, what is the shoulder position?
• Exhalation MET for ribs 3-5
• In the traction-based foot HVLA, which best describes patient positioning and thrust?
• Which HVLA technique is used to address dropped navicular/cuboid/cuneiforms, commonly referred to as Hiss Whip?
• HVLA for Anterior Rotated Innominate Dysfunction, what is the required preparatory action?
• MET for a Superior Iliac-Pelvic Shear-SUPINE: On the last go, what instruction is given to the patient?
• In cranial OMM, which technique is described in association with occipitomastoid suture release and is often labeled as the ping-pong technique?
• For MET AC joint Adduction SD, which action is performed to bring the shoulder toward the barrier?
• During AT10-12 side bending toward ankles/feet?
• In Hip Internal Rotation MET, what is the instructed movement of the foot?
• In Piriformis Counterstrain technique, where is the tender point located?
• AC2-AC6 and AC8 cervical counterstrain are classified as which category?
• Which counterstrain target is for the lateral hamstring (biceps femoris)?
• What is the counterstrain position for Biceps Short Head / Coracobrachialis Counterstrain?
• Where is the tender point located for Rhomboid Minor/Major Counterstrain?
• MET for Extension SD of the SC joint targets dysfunction of which joint?
• Which Cranial OMM technique addresses the occipitoatlantal joint and is named in the source material?
• Which Cranial OMM technique decompresses the condyles?
• Exhalation MET for ribs 11-12
• Which SD MET target corresponds to tibiotalar plantarflexion?
• Which Cranial OMM hold involves the frontal and occipital bones?
• Which HVLA is described as Anterior Tibia SD HVLA?
• In MET Left Unilateral Sacral Flexion with Respiratory Assist, on which side of the table does the physician stand?
• MET adduction somatic dysfunction is described for addressing dysfunction of which joint?
• In Levator Scapulae Counterstrain, which combination defines the tender-point position?
• Which joints connect the tarsal bones with the metatarsals?
• Sacral diagnosis pertains to which bone?
• Which description corresponds to Pubic Gaping described in the METs?
• Which Cranial OMM technique name explicitly includes 'Flexion Hand Placements'?
• Which counterstrain technique corresponds to Extension Ankle (Gastrocnemius)?
• Which SD MET target corresponds to talocalcaneal eversion?
• In Tibia Internal Rotation SD MET, which direction for the foot?
• Which counterstrain target is for the medial hamstring (semimembranosus)?
• Which Cranial OMM technique includes 'Extension' in its name?
• Lumbar Type II Extension Dysfunction MET: After the patient is on their side and the transverse process is UP, what is the next step?
• For MET AC joint Adduction SD, what is the physician's starting position?
• Where is the tender point located for Supraspinatus Counterstrain?
• HVLA for the ulnohumeral joint described as abduction with medial glide corresponds to which glide/arc?
• Which counterstrain is designated for the Medial Ankle associated with Tibialis Anterior?
• Which joint lies between the talus and calcaneus?
• The Hiss Whip technique addresses which of the following in the foot?
• MET for an Inferior Innominate Shear: Which breathing pattern is used during the barrier as described?
• During Counterstrain AL1, the practitioner should stand on which side relative to the tender point?
• Lumbar Type I MET: Which action best describes lifting the legs to sidebend the lumbar spine?
• MET for Superior Pubic Shear Dysfunction, what action does the patient perform with the knee?
• The collection of bones forming the hindfoot and midfoot region is referred to as which of the following?
• For fibular head dysfunctions, which statement correctly aligns the HVLA approach with the anatomical site corrected?
• HVLA for Superior Innominate Shear, which movements comprise the sequence?
• Which counterstrain target is associated with the lateral Trochanteric region?
• In Counterstrain for Psoas, where is the tender point located relative to the ASIS?
• During Alternative Bilateral Sacral Flexion MET, which action induces flexion of the lumbar spine into the barrier?
• Which joint primarily enables dorsiflexion and plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle?
• Inhalation MET for ribs 7-10?
• Rib Counterstrain AR1-2 is performed with the ribs in which phase?
• In Piriformis Counterstrain, how is the patient's leg positioned during treatment?
• For Hip Internal Rotation MET, where should the clinician stand relative to the dysfunction?
• C2-C7 Flexed MET corresponds to which region?
• For Hip Adduction SD MET, what is the patient's starting position?
• In the Spencer Sequence, what is the fourth stage?
• Which preparatory step is listed for HVLA techniques for rotated innominate dysfunctions?
• In MET for Pubic Gaping Dysfunction (Abducted Pubic Symphysis), which describes the physician's action?
• For lateral epicondyle counterstrain, which forearm position is used?
• Fibular Head diagnosis addresses dysfunction at which site?
• C2-C7 diagnosis focuses on which region?
• In Extensor Carpi Radialis Counterstrain, how is the wrist positioned?